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Why do protestants believe in the Bible when it was compiled by a "non Biblical" Church? : OrthodoxChristianity

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I originally posted this as a comment but because I am actually quite curious about this, I thought I would try to get a few more answers from people who know. I know next to nothing about protestant theology from any denomination. My husband tells me tidbits here and there (he was raised nondenom and his exgf was Baptist, so he knows a little about what they believe) and I am always like, "Whaaaat?" cause it's just very different from anything I was ever exposed to. Anyway... I have a question I always want to ask sola scriptura types and other protestants whose faith hinges on what is Biblical and what isn't: Why is the Bible considered absolutely authoritative but the tradition from which it sprung, (the Early Church, i.e., Orthodoxy), whose bishops curated and canonized, is not authoritative? That doesn't make sense to me. God did not hand us The Bible, bound in its current form. The Early Church and early bishops had to decide what was true and what wasn't-- what to base our faith

Archived post. New comments cannot be posted and votes cannot be cast. The truth is, there is no way to answer this question from a Protestant perspective. It completely undermines Protestant epistemology. If the Bible is the only infallible authority in Christianity but the Biblical canon rests on the authority of the Orthodox Catholic Church, there is a massive epistemic problem. The Protestant is kind of forced to admit that God worked through the Church, but then the Protestant has to explain why the Church doesn't then have divine authority on other matters, or why would the Holy…

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